(j3.2006) Why is the Passed-Object Argument Explicit?

[Bill Long]

On Feb 4, 2014, at 1:49 PM, Craig Dedo <craig at ctdedo.com> wrote:

> Everyone:
>             Yesterday, on the Intel Visual Fortran (IVF) Developers Forum, Jim Dempsey asked this question:
> [Quote]
> Do you know why the Fortran standards committee did not choose to make the ?this? arg implicit?  (like most other OO languages)
> [End of quote]

Would that cause ?this? to be a reserved variable name?  That would seem very un-Fortran.

Cheers,
Bill

>  
>             Although I was present during the development of the OOP features, my memory is hazy as to why the passed-object argument is explicit rather than implicit.  Could one or more persons refresh my memory?  Malcolm, you headed up the OOP effort, could you please contribute your insight?
>  
> Sincerely,
> Craig T. Dedo
> 17130 W. Burleigh Place
> P. O. Box 423                         Mobile Phone:  (414) 412-5869
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Bill Long                                                                       longb at cray.com
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