(j3.2006) "definable", associate-name

Aleksandar Donev adonev
Fri Jun 18 12:38:26 EDT 2010


Tobias Burnus wrote:
> I think the sensible answer is: No, it is not valid.
This is definitely the correct answer. I am sure Malcolm will explain 
the standardese, so I will not even try. I believe being told at some 
point arrays are nothing but collections of scalar variables and 
defining/undefining always refers to the elements of the array (even if 
a whole array assignment that is just interpreted as a collection of 
individual definitions). So array(1)=1 defines array(1), not array (this 
is important, say, when interpreting some of the new coarray rules).
Aleks

-- 
Aleksandar Donev, Ph.D.
Luis W. Alvarez Postdoctoral Fellow
Center for Computational Sciences and Engineering (https://ccse.lbl.gov)
Lawrence Berkeley National Laboratory (http://www.lbl.gov)
E-mail: adonev at lbl.gov
Phone: (510) 486-5782  Fax: (510) 486-6900
Address: MS 50A-1148, LBL, 1 Cyclotron Rd., Berkeley, CA 94720
Web: http://cims.nyu.edu/~donev/



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